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Aurangzeb bhai, i read tein talak ka bhoot written by u, excellent job u have done, bt 1 thing is that give a logical answer of the question that aik shaks jo pese lekar talak deta hai wo pher rojo kiyn nahe kar sakta,galati ka koi to azala hoga???
Add Your Comments  Question by: NADEEM_AKHTAR On 07 June 2010
Comments by: moazzam On 07 June 2010
Brother Agha sanaullah! slam o alaikum, interesting question,although Aurangzaib bhai will reply more rationaly ,but i also like to share my comments with u if u don't mind.This kind of talaq is known as "khula"and always initiated by woman.In our society the woman files a suit againt her husband.After hearing from both side it is based on the decion of judge,not the will of husband.In my opinion if there would be any chance of rujoo from the woman side then again there would be the chances of same play led to separation due to the tendancy of woman.So this is the vital point to be observed by the judge. before dicision to separation.  

Comments by: aurangzaib On 07 June 2010Report Abuse
Dear Bhai Agha Sanaullah,  
The article which you read with due deliberation - and it is source of pleasure for me - deals only with the subject of misinterpretation of Quranic meanings. It clarifies, with the guidance from very noble senior scholars, how the true meanings of Quranic injunctions have been corrupted and to what great extent. And what those injunctions had actually meant to convey.  
The article did not deal with the LOGIC BEHIND the divine decree in regard to "Khula' bil maal'. However, upon your 'point of order', the suggestions that we get from the text are : development of dislike between the couple; woman wary of keeping up with the husband's attitude; efforts for reconciliation having failed; insisting upon divorce; husband creating obstacles and treating her desire with high-handedness and disregard; quarrels going on; finally man imposing conditions for releasing the wife from marital bonds; woman so annoyed that instead of contacting the court, thinks feasible to get rid of him by offering some amount of money or valuables; man so inhuman and greedy that he agrees to blackmail her and pinch some of her money in return for her release.  
Now in that scenario, is it worthwhile assuming that such a couple would ever like to re-marry? Or a woman, victim of male tyranny, why would she ever think of re-establishing with such a man this closest of human relationship? And why such a black-mailer, greedy husband, be forgiven and allowed another chance to terrorize that woman?  
To me, the verdict of the Almighty seems highly just and logical.  
This is just a mutual discussion, aimed to substantiate a divine verdict based on profound wisdom.  
God bless you.  

Comments by: Abdul Hadi Saqib On 03 June 2015Report Abuse
the aastana holds the conviction that quran provides the principles not the laws. Pondering upoun the the two talaq and the talaq taken by money, in addition the specification of other complexities, it no doubt comes into the category of a fixed law and part of the constitution. what would you say brother moazamislam

Comments by: Nargis On 05 June 2015Report Abuse
Are you asking whether the talaq verses are laws and not values ?

Comments by: Abdul Hadi Saqib On 23 June 2015Report Abuse
Dr qmar zaman holds a firm belief that quran only talks of principles and values, law making is the job of jurisprudence of the country. Considering the two talaqs, it implies as a constitutional law, not any principle. First of all clear your stance that whether quran is a book of fixed laws(such that of legislation) or a book of priniciples.

Comments by: Nargis On 24 June 2015Report Abuse
Quran gives eternal parameters/principles/values and laws, to make the socioeconomic system according to the need of the time for the betterment of the society in their available resources. Humanity can derive by laws from these to regulate their systems[to legislate the social order/the constitution. in this case this is a requirement of minimum two witnesses which is valid at all times. Its a principle in such cases that it is fixed. The way I see it, it is a permanent principle,

Comments by: Abdul Hadi Saqib On 02 July 2015Report Abuse
If you ponder upon different systems in the world regarding the divorce, many of them you will find to be more effective than the above mentioned two talaqs. Consider the american and eurpean system. They have computerized everything, the only thing to ensure successful marriage life are the dominant principles. In fact dr Qamar at the occasion of explaining the verses of surah noor, which are traditionally translated as that of flogging, told me that quran only provides permanent principles, the case of pre marital sex has to be decided by the society. So when you are asserting that the society can decide these kind of matters themselves, why there is need for two talaq in the case of divorce and related intricates.

Comments by: Nargis On 03 July 2015Report Abuse
this two talaaq thing is not for husband and wife, its referring to contracts between societies or groups - And these contracts are in relation to larger groups of people and probably involve economical responsibility /distributions so its much stricter or detailed rules are provided - Even in Scandinavian countries you have minimum rules for some contacts .. also if you make a will - that minimum rule is valid at all times

Comments by: Hamid Gul On 19 September 2015 Edit DeleteReport Abuse
which ayat is being discussed, any reference ?

Aurangzeb bhai regards while reading topic of talaq I felt that there is difference of opinion on the issue b/w you and Dr.Qamar Zaman, is it so?or I have made a mistake while going through the topic?please answer Question by: ali.haideer From PAKISTAN (LARKANA) On 02/07/2010
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