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15 Questions QUESTIONS
Aslamoalikum Dr Qamar Zaman: I have come some questions which I want to ask regarding Chapter 27 that is Soreh Namal. I am giving my questions below in comments Date : 7/18/2010

Dr. Qamar there are verses in Quran whose usual translation give the whole pictures of Human development but it is imposible to believe on these verses 1400 years ago,therefore plz give the exact translations of all those verses. Date : 7/16/2010

Aslamolalikum Dr Qamar: I want to ask a question about Economical System, I am explaing it below. Date : 7/16/2010

Dr. Sahab and Aurangzeb Bhai I have to ask a question regarding Nabowat and Risalat, Is silsilae Nabowat and Risalat is still continue, I am further explaining my question by giving comments on it. Date : 7/11/2010

Dr Qamar and Aurangzeb Bhai, there is a verse in Quran 8:63 and 49:10,3:102 my question is about these verses, let me explain my question. Date : 7/11/2010

Aslamoalikum Dr. Qamar I have to ask you a question about life after death Date : 7/11/2010

Aslamoalikum Dr.Qamar Sahab, ap se aik darkhowast hai k ap questions k liye saturday 12 to 2 ke ilawa tuesday ya wednesday k din bhe time dein take agar saturday mis hojae to ap se jald bat hosake warna pher 7days wait karna parta hai.Thank You Date : 7/5/2010

Aurangzeb bhai regards while reading topic of talaq I felt that there is difference of opinion on the issue b/w you and Dr.Qamar Zaman, is it so?or I have made a mistake while going through the topic?please answer Date : 7/2/2010

Dr Qamar Regards ap ne likha hai k tesri bar talak ke bad aurat k chahne se nikha ho sakta hai.......agar us ke bad pher talak hogae to???????Explain this condition also!!! thanks Date : 7/2/2010

Dr. Qamar and Aurangzeb Bhai Regards!!!!!!!!!! I have to ask a question regarding 10:92 verse of Quran, due to shortage of space I am explaining my question by giving a comment on it. Thanks Date : 7/2/2010

One thing which i want to ask is that if a society is pemitting sex, there is no marriage boundation in the society,where after and before marriage they are doing it and it is permitted in law, than is it right?does Quran permits it? Date : 6/25/2010

Dr shb regards you have said that zina which quran mentions is not adultery it is something else,than i wana to ask has quran mentioned any punishment for adultery??if not than what should be done wid such persons???will it be decided by the society? Date : 6/25/2010

dr qamar zaman sahab regards in one of your answers in blog you have mentioned that if any none muslam is doing a good deed he will be rewared in life after death and you have quoted a verse of quran, but i want to ask about it. Date : 6/25/2010

sir plz tell me why islam allows a muslim man to marry a ehle kitab woman and does not permit a muslim woman to marry a ehle kitab. why there is such boundation over a muslim lady?thnx Date : 6/4/2010

Dr Qamar Zaman ap ne kitab haqeqate som k page no 41 par aur haqeqate salat k page 158 chapter 17 verse 78 ka tarjuma mukhtalif likha hai, ap ne DALOK AUR LAIL ke mani dono jaga mukhtalif biyan kien hain. Please is chiez ko zara biyan kijeye. Thnx Date : 6/3/2010

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32 Comments/Replies COMMENTS / REPLIES
thnx dr sahab for the clarification of the soreh namal.thnx alot for the answer
Date : 7/25/2010>>View Detail

Respected Brother Aurangzeb I just want to know few things which you missed to answer to the point in your previous reply.  
We all admit that God has created rules for everything to occur. Once we all admit this point than the issue arises that:  
1). "Why did he make rules for diseases (either occuring in new borns or in indigents) to occur?"  
It is today because of science that few diseases have been cured but in past these minor diseases very so fatal that thousands of human beings lost their lives. God was aware of this that the human being at this level (means 1000s of years ago when there was no Science) are not able to combate diseases and not even able to understand the basic A B C of these diesases than after having the knowledge of these things  
2). Why did he imposed such devastating rules for diseases to occur?  
Thanks
Date : 7/19/2010>>View Detail

1. The first thing is that what is the meaning of NAMAL?  
*Some have said this name was attributed to a valley, some has said that it means Ants as in 27:18 the word has been translated in to the meaning of Ants.(Page 219, Lughatul Quran by Naeemudin Siddique also states Namal means ants)  
2. What is the purpose of telling us these stories?  
*In this chapter we have been told the stories of Mosses, Suleman and Suleh.In this era what purpose these stories can serve? As any body who is admitting Islam today and start quran or a muslim is reading quran what he will understand. We can learn lesson from things which happen before us, these events happened 100s of years ago, these will not be lesson for us today? Even many people say that these are the Hypothetical stories.What should we reply to them.  
3. In verse 16 it is given that Suleman said we have been taught the language of birds. What is the exact translation of this verse? Becaase its very difficult to believe that some one understands birds.  
*The words used in the verse are (Ulema Mantika Tera) and at several places in Quran the word ter has been translated as birds just like in 24:11 and Naeemudin Siddique in Lughatul Quran has given the meaning as Birds. Please clear this word and the meaning of the verse.  
4. In verse 17 it is given that Soleman gathered soliders of Jinns, Men and BIRDS.  
*Again the word Tere(Birds) creats a problem.  
5. 27:20 the character Hud hud(Hoopoe) has been defiend as Bird by some of the translators and some says that he was the solider of the Soleman. How to decide exactly who was Hud Hud?  
6. 27:23 has been translated as "Men ne daikha us mulk par aik malika hukumran hai jis k pas sab kuch ha.Aur us ka androni nazmo nask aur control bhe bara azemo shan hai." By G. A Perveez  
OR  
"Indeed I found a woman ruling them, and she has been given of all things, and she has a great throne."  
The question is that when the state of Saba was happy they were having each and every thing what was the reason to impose war on them? Although my question has been answered in 27:24 but that answer seems to be totally illogical and I think that is the mis interpretation of 27:24.  
27:24 is translated as: "I found her and her people prostrating to the sun instead of God and satan has mad their deeds pleasing to them and everted them from His way so they are not guided". Nearly same translation has been given by G.A Perveez.  
*The question is that:is it fair to impose war just because of the reason that some one is not prostrating God? The answers given on aastana blog relating to this topic contradicts with this thing. What is the exact translation, meaning and explanation of this verse? If we say that it was the ideology they were following not just rutials but even if it was ideology but the state was prosperous than why did they impose war? Even this idea that they were prasing Sun and due to this Soleman impose war is against the Quranic verse which says " LA IKRA FID DEIN".  
*Please solve the issue of great throne(arshun azeem) as well.  
7. 27:25-26 has defined the dignity of God.  
*My question is that if it is ok not to believe in God and following an ideology that brings prosperty in the society than why such verses has been given in the quran? there was an answer on the blog that people who don't believe in God if they are doing good deeds they will go to jana, than the Saba's state was properous but they were not believing in God but Soleman imposed war than how do you say that non believers will go in Jana? and also that how can we say that it is ok to follow any ideology which can bring peace?  
8. In 27:31 Soleman says " be not haughty with me but come to me in submission as muslims."  
*We know through the verse 27:23 that the state was prosperous and through the verse 27:24 and 31 that they were not following the divine revelation/they were not believers. Is it possible to bring peace in the world w/o following divine revalation? The answer in the perspective of these verses is surely yes, than why we all are learning Quran? If peace and prosperity is possible by the man made rules that why did God descended revalations?  
9. In 27:37 Soleman said "we will surely expel them therefrom in humilation and they will be debased".  
*The previous verses show that the people of saba got prosperity b/c of there own struggle but the reason they wre non believers Soleman is going to impose war to expel them in humilation, is it fair??? Are prophets coming for these things? He is going to start war in a place where there is already peace.  
10. 27:38 Soleman said which of you will bring me her throne before they come to me in submission.  
*If the meaning of arshun azeem is Empire not a throne than how can one bring the empire? If it means who will conqure the state for me than why the next line is added that before they come in my submission? Was soleman not intrested to give them time to think/ to ponder to admit Islam?  
11. 27:42 it is mentioned that when saba arrived than it was said to her Is your throne like this, she said yes.  
*If it is about the throne than whats all this? but if it is about state's condition and rules and regulation and saba says yes my state was like this than why did Soleman fought?  
12. 27:43 it has been told that Saba would have admitted the Islam but she was expecting that her gods were help her in war. but in the end she admitted Islam.  
*It means saba was admitting Divine revalation not on the basis that the divine revalation gives us a system she admitted b/c her gods did not help her and she found that God was very powerful but she did not even ponder on the issue of the system. What is it?  
13. 27:44 "She was told, enter the palace".  
*Were prophets living in Palaces??????  
Please Sir answer these questions.  
Thanks  
Date : 7/18/2010>>View Detail

Thank You Sir, but please keep this matter in your consideration and translate the verses as soon as possible so that those verses can be very clear to us. Thanks once again!!
Date : 7/17/2010>>View Detail

Aslamoalikum Dr Sahab:  
15:20 "aur tmhare liye is mein roziyan kar dien aur wo kar diye jinhein tm rizq nahen dete".  
20:54 "tm khaoo aur apne maweshiyon ko charaoo".  
7:73 & 11:64 same thing that "Allah k zameen se khae".  
(Translations taken from Kanzeelul Eman by Ahmed Raza Khan Brelvi)  
Dr Sahab as in the translation it is announced that land is the source from which people get rizq thats why it is interpreted by some scholars that to keep land as a property is prohibited in Islam and they say that this land belongs to Allah the Almighty than how can one say that this land is their property? in the light of these verses no body has right to keep other people deprived of land? in simple words like Socialism where every thing rests with government and no body is having property, thats why I asked this question that is this interpretation correct, if not what to do in this matter.Please answer.  
Thanks  
Date : 7/17/2010>>View Detail

We see in 20:54, 15:20, 7:73, 11:64, 26:155 that God has declared that No body has the right to keep land as the property, and in 2:219 that one can have only part of income for which he has done work and that is sufficent for his needs other part will be submitited to the Government. But at the same time we see in Quran that there are rules how to distribute property in heirs, on the one hand when no body is allowed to keep land, amount of income more than need than how can one make property that can be subjected to distribution?if we say these are steps intially people were having land thats why quran gave rule than these ayats regarding no body is allowed to keep property were descended and the property distribution problem was over, it seems illogical thats seems like nasikh mansookh...... Also in 2:219 there is a responsibility on part of peoples not on government to keep the equality say for example one is earning more than the other than the authorities of Government are not directed to keep the equality but individual people are addressed???? Why it is soo????? Sir I aslo asked question on Talaq please answer that as wel, I am waiting for that. Thanks
Date : 7/16/2010>>View Detail

Dr Samreen thats all about Medical that this disease is due to this and this is due to this......And with every passing moment new research is comming about this. But the problem is why God has let these abnormalities to happen??? We know He has made rules for everything than why did he make rules for diseases to occur????we know that any abnormality from fertilization to birth will cause problems but why did God let all these diseases to happen?????And it is today b/c of science that we know that these are occuring b/c oof gene mutation and so and so, how did the people 1400 years ago believe that God is not resposible the genes are responsible for all this????? surely these issues might have been answered at that time..............these points need to be answered........................
Date : 7/16/2010>>View Detail

Aslamoalikum Adnan Bhai I was about to ask this question and I saw this Question. There is a strong need of this thing.
Date : 7/16/2010>>View Detail

Aslamoalikum Brother, go through the book Haqeqate Som of Dr. Qamar Sahab you will understand the actual theme of Som and Ramzan that book will give you detailed explanation of each and every thing. Thank You
Date : 7/12/2010>>View Detail

It means that, it is possible that there had been clashes b/w Sahabas after prophet particularly on the issue of Khilafat, and we can't use that verse of Quran to prove that there had been no war like jange sifan, jange jamal AND karbala..........It is possible that the sahabas fought after prophet????  
I know it is of no use to discuss these issues but I just want to clear my ideas!!!!!!thats why I am asking all this.
Date : 7/12/2010>>View Detail

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